Proof.
As

is a decreasing function, for any

in
![$ [k,k+1]$](img690.png)
, we know

.
So we have
 |
(6.2.10) |
Then we have
 |
(6.2.11) |
As this is true for any

, this means
 |
(6.2.12) |
So if the integral is finite, the sum converges, which means we have proven one direction.
Formula (
6.2.10) might look a bit intimidating, but all we are doing is simply
taking the lower Riemann sums:
180pt
On the other hand, we can follow the same reasoning for the upper Riemann sums.
Because

is a decreasing function, for any

in
![$ [k,k+1]$](img690.png)
, we know

.
So we have
 |
(6.2.13) |
Which then leads to
 |
(6.2.14) |
Because this is true for any

, this means
 |
(6.2.15) |
So if the sum is finite, the integral is finite and therefore convergence of the sum
means convergence of the integral.
Formula (
6.2.13) might look a bit intimidating, but again, it is a very natural idea,
namely taking Riemann upper sums:
180pt
Note that in either case we are estimating the integral with only part of the actual sum.
This is perfectly all right, because dropping one or two terms of a series does not make
any difference to the fact that the series is convergent or divergent.