Theorem 4.5.2 (Taylor)
Let
![$ f : [a,b] \to \hbox {I \hskip -5.2pt {R}}: x \mapsto f(x)$](img333.png)
be an

times differentiable function,
and let

in
![$ ]a,b[$](img296.png)
, then there exists a point

in
![$ ]a,b[$](img296.png)
such that
 |
(4.5.1) |
Proof.
Choose a number

such that
 |
(4.5.2) |
Now we have to prove that there is a

such that

. Define
 |
(4.5.3) |
Then note that

and

, so by Rolle's Theorem,
there exists an

for which

.
We can play this game over and over again:

and

, so again by
Rolle's Theorem, there exists an

for which

.
After

steps we get an

such that

. This

is our

for which

.
Remark 4.5.3
Taylor's theorem essentially proves that all

times differentiable functions
can be approximated by polynomials of the

-th degree. Note that this approximation
is always local by nature: the approximation can be very good around point

, but
will become increasingly imprecise when going away from this point.
200pt
In this example the function

is approximated by the polynomial
 |
(4.5.4) |
Note that the approximation is quite good in the interval
![$ \left[-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right]$](img459.png)
but then evolves from poor to downright irrelevant when going outside
the interval. It is clear that the

function can never be accurately
approximated over the entire axis by a polynomial because a polynomial tails
off to plus or minus infinity for large enough numbers and the

function
spends all its life between

and

. On a finite interval, however, the
approximation can be arbitrarily close. Taylor's theorem assures that this is
true for all sufficiently differentiable functions. The following
corollary is merely a formal expression of this reasoning.
Corollary 4.5.4
Let
![$ f : [a,b] \to \hbox {I \hskip -5.2pt {R}}: x \mapsto f(x)$](img333.png)
be an

times differentiable function,
and let

in
![$ ]a,b[$](img296.png)
. And let

for all

in
![$ [a,b]$](img286.png)
for any

. Then
![$\displaystyle \forall x \in ]a,b[ : f(x) = f(x_0) + \lim_{n \to +\infty} \sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \frac{f^{(k)}(x_0)}{k!} (x-x_0)^k$](img461.png) |
(4.5.5) |
Proof.
We essentially have to prove that the rest term in the Taylor expansion converges
to 0. First notice
 |
(4.5.6) |
and as

for any

, as we have seen
in (
2.0.21), we have proven the corollary.